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Yassine Meskhout's avatar

[Note: I had nothing to do with this post or Jesse's emails. Substack just labels any contributors to a newsletter as "Author" to every single post.]

I don't think Stern realizes that his confused argument implicitly categorizes everyone as trans. He says "A cis boy could surely seek breast reduction to affirm his (male) gender identity, because he thinks larger breasts are inconsistent with his sex; a trans boy could not seek breast reduction to affirm his (male) gender identity for the same reason."

So...what exactly is the difference between the two kids? They both apparently have an internal gendered soul that is inconsistent with their body, and they both require medical intervention to "affirm" their true gendered soul, but Stern refers to one as cis and the other as trans.

This is inevitably a byproduct of the incoherence behind "gender identity" notions, and the vague ethereal way it's defined. If you believe that "trans can be anything that you want", then you can't concretely define the experience, and therefore you lose the ability to identify a protected class. Everyone becomes trans, because everyone has (if you squint) some form of "gender dysphoria" that requires "affirming care". The word loses its meaning, which is usually a problem in the legal world.

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There's further problems with the Skrmetti criticism (for the record, I think there's plenty of philosophical debates to be had regarding "because of" discrimination tests, which I expand upon on a related topic here: https://www.ymeskhout.com/p/slicing-the-kosher-hate-salami).

The jurisprudence in this area is a two step process:

1. First, does the law _facially_ classify on the basis of sex? Examples of laws that were struck down had very obvious language (e.g. "males must be preferred to females" Reed v Reed 1971), and the language of SB1 very clearly does not. Certain treatments are banned for certain diagnoses, no matter what the person's sex is.

2. But that's not the end, because you also have to check for when legislatures are trying to _hide_ their discriminatory classification. So even if the law doesn't discriminate explicitly, you have to check if that was the intent _and_ impact. For example, in the 1950s the city of Tuskegee redrew its boundaries into an odd 28-sided shape. The officials didn't bother offering any explanation, but everyone noticed that the boundaries removed almost every black voter from the city. SCOTUS ruled this was a sufficient showing of discrimination. (Gomillion v. Lightfoot 1960).

Skrmetti majority opinion points out "The plaintiffs, moreover, have not argued that SB1’s prohibitions are mere pretexts designed to effect an invidious discrimination against transgender individuals." It makes sense that they didn't even try, because there's nothing there there. Regardless of your opinion of SB1 and other laws, it's hard to dispute that their legislative intent was explicitly to HELP minors diagnosed with gender dysphoria!

Supporters of these laws believe that "gender affirming care" medical procedures hurt far more than they help. Trans activists will obviously say they're wrong, but that's _very_ different from claiming they're motivated by animus!

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Even if they cleared the above two hurdles, the final 3rd step is also a huge problem. You'd have to then apply some level of heightened scrutiny to determine whether the law serves a legit governmental interest. The problem here is that, at best, this is a hotly contested and very new medical field...what do you want judges to do about that? Rightly or wrongly, a legislature is given broad deference and is seen as better equipped to make determinations about what is or isn't too dangerous to allow. It was beyond stupid to ask for and expect _constitutional judicial intervention_ on such a hotly contested field of science.

Theodric's avatar

I’ll republish my comment from the related BarPod episode thread, as Mark’s response I think makes it still relevant and doesn’t allay my concern from his original response:

I think Stern’s argument is a good example of why it’s at least sometimes important to push back on definitional debates and the euphemism treadmill, because his argument is question begging enabled by redefining “sex reassignment” into “gender affirmation”.

We used to talk about “sex change operations” or “sex reassignment”. That is, halting a person’s sexual development and artificially modifying their secondary sexual characteristics to produce the appearance of the opposite sex. Now obviously, the male who is treating his gynecomastia is not reassigning or changing his sex. Likewise the precocious puberty patient is not attempting to prevent or stop their sexual development, merely delay it to its normal age. In both cases, there is a clear, physical disorder of sexual development that is being treated by making the patient’s body more “normal” for their sex. On the other hand, people without clear physical disorders of their sexual development who want to appear as if their body is the opposite sex (or unsexed) *are* doing something that could reasonably be described as “sex reassignment”.

Somewhere along the line the euphemisms “gender affirmation” and “gender affirming care” popped up. There are some reasonable sounding arguments for preferring these terms, e.g. sex can’t truly be “changed” and it may be preferable for a person with gender dysphoria to frame their treatment as “making their body conform to their true gender identity” rather than “changing their sex”. But the euphemisms make it harder to discuss the distinction at the heart of Skrmetti, because now people like Stern and Strangio can say, “well gee, isn’t gynecomastia treatment gender affirming care?” despite no one ever thinking that was the same thing prior to this new euphemism.

The entire crux of the argument is hidden within this euphemism shift! The previous language (sex reassignment) or even a clear description of the actual treatment and diagnosis allows for an obvious distinction between “male with gynecomastia getting breast reduction surgery” and “male with gender dysphoria taking estrogen”. But redefining both as “gender affirmation” deliberately obscures this distinction and reframe the discussion as “so you’re saying boys can take T but girls can’t, it must be sex discrimination!”

Ultimately people advancing the argument that Mark does here are using circular reasoning, by defining their terms in such a way that “this law requires using sex as a discriminator” is a tautology. But they fail to make a convincing argument for *why* that definition is the only valid one.

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